CCNA 4 v6.0 Pretest Exam Answers 100%
1. The buffers for packet processing and the running configuration file are temporarily stored in which type of router memory?
flash
NVRAM
RAM*
ROM
2. How does implementing STP allow for a scalable network design?
It eliminates Layer 2 loops from redundant links.*
It provides failover services when duplicate network equipment is used.
It filters broadcasts and other undesirable traffic from the network.
It prevents local traffic from propagating to other parts of the network.
3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
DSL*
dial-up
satellite
cell modem
cable modem
4. What is a characteristic of a default static route?
It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.
It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.
It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.*
It is configured with a higher administrative distance than is the original dynamic routing protocol.
5. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*
dynamic auto – dynamic auto
dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*
dynamic desirable – trunk*
access – trunk
access – dynamic auto
6. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
FastEthernet0/1
VLAN 1*
vty 0
console 0
7. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
8. Refer to the exhibit.
CCNA 4 v6.0 Pretest Exam Answers
Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?
S1
S2*
S3
S4
9. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)
ARP
DHCP*
DNS*
FTP*
NAT
PPP
10. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)
crosstalk*
bandwidth
size of the network
signal modulation technique
electromagnetic interference*
11. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?
the destination MAC address and the incoming port
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port*
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
12. A network engineer has been tasked with connecting two large autonomous systems (AS) together over the Internet. Which routing protocol should be selected?
EIGRP
OSPFv2
IS-IS
BGP*
13. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?
source MAC address
source IP address
destination MAC address*
Ethernet type
destination IP address
14. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
to provide increased network security*
to shut down unused interfaces
to avoid unnecessary update traffic*
to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces
to exclude interfaces from load balancing
15. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
packet forwarding*
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection*
flow control
16. Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switch
Layer 3 switch*
hub
repeater
router*
17. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
The router uses the default route.
The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*
The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
18. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0/8*
172.16.0.0/12*
192.168.0.0/16*
100.64.0.0/14
169.254.0.0/16
239.0.0.0/8
19. Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask*
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199
access list number between 1 and 99
20. Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork. (Not all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order.
— not scored —
192.168.1.68 -> 192.168.1.64/27
— not scored —
192.168.1.48 -> 192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.121 -> 192.168.1.96/27
21. Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?
the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router
the IP address of the highest active interface on the router
the router-id rid command*
the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface
22. A network administrator is entering the command ipv6 unicast-routing to start configuring DHCPv6 operation on a router. Which statement describes the function of this command?
It is required for sending ICMPv6 RA messages.*
It is required to configure stateful DHCPv6 server on the router.
It is required to configure stateless DHCPv6 server on the router.
It is required for enabling DNS service in DHCPv6 configurations.
23. What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)
flow control*
encryption of data
path determination
connection establishment*
error recovery*
bit transmission
data representation
24. Which TCP/IP model layer is closest to the end user?
application*
internet
network access
transport
25. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?
exec-timeout 30
service password-encryption
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*
26. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?
when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*
when the network will span multiple buildings
when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN
when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
27. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?
dial-up connection
leased line connection
site-to-site VPN over the Internet
remote access VPN over the Internet*
28. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)
PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*
PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.*
29. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
30. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?
PPPoE*
CHAP
ADSL
LTE
31. Refer to the exhibit.
All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?
2
3
4*
5
32. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 1 and 99
access list number between 100 and 199*
default gateway address and wildcard mask
destination address and wildcard mask*
source address and wildcard mask*
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
33. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?
data analytics
fog computing*
network connectivity
application enhancement platform
34. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)
VTP
LLDP
HSRP
RADIUS*
TACACS+*
35. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?
They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.*
They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
They should be placed on the destination WAN link.
36. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?
802.1X
SNMP
SPAN*
syslog
37. Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)
38. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?
CoS*
ToS
DSCP
IP precedence
39. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
syslog records and messages
the network performance baseline*
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files
40. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?
LLDP
IP SLA*
syslog
SPAN